Q 69. Minor Minerals Regulation in India
Q69. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act) governs the regulation of mines and minerals in India. It distinguishes between major and minor minerals.
- Statement I: This statement is not correct. In India, the power to regulate and grant concessions for the extraction of minor minerals is vested with the State Governments. The Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowers State Governments to make rules for minor minerals.
- Statement II: This statement is correct. The Central Government has the authority to notify what constitutes minor minerals under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. This power allows the Central Government to classify minerals as minor or major. (Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act). Thus, the classification of a mineral as “minor” is decided centrally, while regulation is done by states.
Q 87. Indian Government Boards and Their Ministries
Q87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. The National Automotive Board: This board is not under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is associated with the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
2. The Coir Board: This board operates under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Hence, this pair is also incorrectly matched.
3. The National Centre for Trade Information: This center is not under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It is associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Thus, this pair is incorrectly matched.
Conclusion
All three pairs are incorrectly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: None.
Q 90. Regulation of Petroleum and Natural Gas Activities
Q90. Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil;
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum;
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products;
IV. Production of natural gas.
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
- Production of crude oil: This option is incorrect. This activity is not regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB). The exploration and production of crude oil are primarily governed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
- Refining, storage, and distribution of petroleum: This option is correct. The PNGRB regulates the refining, storage, and distribution of petroleum products. This includes overseeing the infrastructure and ensuring fair trade practices.
- Marketing and sale of petroleum products: This option is correct. The PNGRB also regulates the marketing and sale of petroleum products, ensuring transparency and consumer protection.
- Production of natural gas: This option is incorrect. Similar to crude oil, the production of natural gas is not directly regulated by the PNGRB. The board focuses more on the downstream activities related to natural gas, such as distribution and marketing.
Q . Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam Provisions
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1: Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
This statement is correct. The provisions of the 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' are set to be implemented starting from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Statement 2: This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
This statement is correct. The Act specifies a duration of 15 years for its provisions to remain in force.
Statement 3: There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
This statement is correct. The Act includes provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the existing Scheduled Castes quota.
Conclusion
The correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect as the provisions are not specified to start from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Q . Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan Overview
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Private Sector Involvement: Statement 2 highlights the involvement of the private sector. Under PMSMA, private sector healthcare providers, including specialists, are encouraged to volunteer and offer their services at government health facilities. This collaboration aims to enhance the quality and reach of antenatal care. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Conclusion: Based on the analysis, only Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 2 only.
Q . Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Scheme Details
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The entry age group for enrolment in the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years. Workers with a monthly income of Rs. 15,000 or less can join the scheme.
- Statement 2 is correct. The scheme requires an age-specific contribution from the beneficiary, which varies between Rs. 55 to Rs. 200 per month depending on the entry age. The Central Government provides an equal matching contribution.
- Statement 3 is correct. Each subscriber under the scheme is entitled to receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. In the event of the beneficiary's death, the spouse is entitled to receive 50% of the pension as a family pension. Family pension is applicable only to the spouse, not to unmarried daughters.
Q . Constitutional Bodies in India
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): The NCBC is a constitutional body. It was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, and is mentioned in Article 338B of the Indian Constitution.
Other Bodies: The National Human Rights Commission, National Law Commission, and National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission are statutory bodies. They are established by acts of Parliament and are not mentioned in the Constitution.
Conclusion: Among the given options, only the NCBC is a constitutional body. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: Only one.
Q . Home Guards: Roles and Regulations Overview
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border / coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Home Guards Act: The Home Guards are not raised under a central act. They are governed by the respective state governments under their own acts and rules. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Role of Home Guards: The primary role of the Home Guards is indeed to serve as an auxiliary force to the police for maintaining internal security. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
3. Border Wing Home Guards: To prevent infiltration along the international border and coastal areas, some states have raised Border Wing Home Guards Battalions. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, two statements are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: Only two.
Q . Incorrectly Matched Legal Provisions in India
With reference to India, Consider the following pairs: Action — The Act under Which it is covered.
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
● Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The action of knowingly misleading or interfering with police or military officers is covered under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, not the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This act addresses issues related to national security and the protection of sensitive information.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 addresses celebratory gunfire, which can endanger personal safety. This amendment aims to regulate the misuse of firearms and ensure public safety.
Q . Prison Management and Governance in India
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day to day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. This is correct as the management of prisons is a State subject under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II: Prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. This is also correct as the Act was enacted during the British era, placing prisons under the control of provincial (now state) governments.
Explanation
Correct Answer: Option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. The Prisons Act, 1894 provides the legal framework that allows State Governments to manage prisons, explaining why they have control over prison administration.
Q . Assessment of Constitutional and Legal Provisions in India
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct. Article 355 of the Indian Constitution mandates that it is the duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance. This ensures that the central government has a constitutional obligation to maintain peace and order within the states.
Statement 2: Legal Counsel for Preventive Detention
Correct. Article 22 of the Constitution provides protection against arrest and detention, but Clause (3) exempts its application to persons detained under laws for preventive detention. Thus, states are not required to provide legal counsel to those held under preventive detention.
Statement 3: Confession Admissibility under POTA
Incorrect. The Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002 allows confessions made before a police officer of rank not lower than a Superintendent of Police to be admissible in court. This contradicts the statement that such confessions cannot be used as evidence.
Conclusion
The correct answer is Option B: Only two statements are correct.
Q . Compilation of Industrial Dispute Data in India
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
Q . Role of Coal Controller’s Organization in India
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
● Statement 2 is correct. The CCO monitors the progress of development of captive coal/lignite blocks. It is tasked with overseeing captive mines and handling permissions for opening and reopening coal mines.
● Statement 3 is correct. Under the Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957, the Coal Controller acts as the competent authority to hear objections to the Central Government’s notifications regarding the acquisition of coal-bearing areas and provides reports to the government.
● Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring timely delivery of coal to end users is not a function of the CCO. This responsibility does not fall under the purview of the Coal Controller’s Organization.
Q . Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission Statements Evaluation
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1: The statement claims that both private and public hospitals must adopt the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. However, the adoption of this mission is not mandatory for all hospitals. It is a voluntary initiative aimed at improving healthcare infrastructure.
Statement 2: This statement suggests that every citizen should be part of the mission to achieve universal health coverage. While the mission aims to enhance healthcare access, it does not mandate that every citizen must be part of it.
Statement 3: The mission indeed offers seamless portability across the country, allowing health records to be accessed nationwide.
Conclusion
The correct answer is Option B: 3 only, as only the third statement accurately reflects the features of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission.
Q . India Sanitation Coalition and Urban Affairs Statements
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Statement 2 is correct: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an apex body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India. It provides innovative solutions to address urban challenges, supporting the government's urban development plans.
Q . Judicial Custody in India: Key Statements
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in Jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Q . Parole Rules and Prisoner Rights in India
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q . Aadhaar Regulations and Mandatory Requirements
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidate fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q . Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in India
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Kanda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q . Constitutional Basis for National Green Tribunal Act
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q . Consumer Rights and Legal Provisions in India
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q . Administration of the Department of Atomic Energy
Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
Q . Chairman of India's National Water Resources Council
In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
Q . Child Labor Policies and Committees
1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labor Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q . GOVERNANCE
According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
Q . GOVERNANCE
Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India: 1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India 2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission 3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature 4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission Which of the above statements are correct?
Q . GOVERNANCE
Which of the following parties were not a part of a United Front which was in power during 96-97? I. Bahujan Samaj Party II. Samata Party III. Haryana Vikas Party IV. Assam Gana Parishad Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q . GOVERNANCE
Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)? 1. To stabilize agricultural prices 2. To ensure meaningful real income level to the farmers 3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system 4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer Codes:
Q . GOVERNANCE
The Employment Guarantee Scheme, a rural work programme, was first started in
- The Rural Employment Program known as Employment Guarantee Scheme was first introduced in Maharashtra in 1972-73.
Q . GOVERNANCE
The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the
Q . GOVERNANCE
Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct? 1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate 2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write 3. For the purpose of census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the 15 languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution 4. The fact that a district has attained hundred per cent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate
Q . GOVERNANCE
Assertion (A): Minimum wages in India are fixed in accordance with the levels of living and the labour participation ratios. Reason (R): All workers covered by the Minimum Wages Acts are above the poverty line. Of these statements
Q . GOVERNANCE
Cognizable offence refers to an offence where
Q . GOVERNANCE
Which of the Following is a ‘cognizable offence’?
Q . GOVERNANCE
What is land ceiling?
- Land ceiling refers to fix the quantum of land held by a family.
Q . GOVERNANCE
The term ‘Fourth Estate’ refers to
Q . GOVERNANCE
Whose signatures are found on a hundred rupee note?
- The Governor of Reserve Bank of India signature is found on a hundred rupee note.
- While all denominations of currency notes are signed by RBI Governor, as a convention the one rupee note continued to be signed by Finance Secretary.